Androgen insensitivity is a rare condition where a genetic (XY) male develops as a female except that the individual has testes that remain in the body cavity and no uterus or ovaries. Blood samples show that the levels of testosterone and other androgens are normal for a male body. Based on this, where do you think the defect in hormonal signaling is likely to be in this condition?

0 votes
    The cAMP intracellular second messenger pathway must not be functioning properly.
    LH levels from the anterior pituitary must be below average.
    FSH levels from the anterior pituitary must be below average.
    Androgen receptors must not be functioning properly and are unable to respond to the circulating androgens.

asked May 30, 2013 in Biology by anonymous
    

1 Answer

0 votes
Androgen receptors must not be functioning properly and are unable to respond to the circulating androgens.
answered May 31, 2013 by Bioshare ~Top Expert~ (34,070 points)

Related questions




...