Non-disjunction during meiosis can occur at either the first or second meiotic division. Although neither event is desired, why would a non-disjunction during the second meiotic division be preferred over a non-disjunction in the first meiotic division?

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    because the overall products of meiosis would be 100% abnormal gametes
    because the overall products of meiosis would be 100% normal gametes
    because the overall products of meiosis would be that no gametes were produced
    because the overall products of meiosis would be 50% normal and 50% abnormal gametes
asked May 19, 2013 in Biology by anonymous
    

1 Answer

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because the overall products of meiosis would be 50% normal and 50% abnormal gametes
answered May 20, 2013 by Bioshare ~Top Expert~ (34,070 points)

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